Why do people refer 1> kda's as negative, when it is in fact a fractional or decimal kda?

Kahthegreat·2/17/2015, 11:41:11 PM·1 votes·841 views

A misnomer? Or just a way for people to associate nomenclatures easier for terms?

2 Comments

Jubbinaut2/17/2015, 11:49:49 PM2 votes

Think of deaths as the inverse of kills, and the terminology makes more sense: on the imaginary number line created by this thinking, Kills move towards positive, and Deaths move towards negative.

It may also relate to the concept of "Dominance Factor" or DF. Here's a link to the Wiki entry on KDA and DF.

Matthias91192/18/2015, 2:53:32 AM1 votes

In shooters (more back in the day, but still somewhat in attrition-based games like Battlefield) it was common to gauge someone's performance by (kills - deaths). The "positive"/"negative" terminology survived, although generally the preferred measurement shifted to (kills / deaths) or ((kills + assists) / deaths).