A question with no answer?

Hm....or perhaps...

An answer with no question.

Yes

Doctor... Who?

It's an old and known paradox. You are late like 20 years - it wasn't THAT known back then.

None of the above? It's a 33% chance because there is in essence three answers.

...But then again, there are 4 buttons and two of them are the same, so if the doubled answer is correct, then it's a 50% chance. BUT if it's wrong, then It goes back to a 25% chance.

So 33% of the time we have a 50% chance, and then 66% of the time we have a 25% chance. Let's take these rules into a test of 100 trials, where 33/100 times we have a 50% chance and the other 67 there's a 25% chance of being correct.

33 x .5 = 16.5 67 x .25 = 16.75 16.5 + 16.75 = 33.25

So we take the 33.25 times we were correct over the 100 trials, and we get 33.25/100 which is basically 33% chance of being correct in a perfect math world.

This is all assuming one of the three options is correct while the others are wrong of course. The way I went about this might be completely wrong too, I'm no probability guru.

It seems pretty easy but maybe im missing something. i guess 50 but so far im the only one :3

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JR4H76SCCzY

This is an old paradox, there is no correct answer.

Therefore stupid thread. gg.

Your odds of being correct are 0% since the question has no current answer.

This updates the answer to 0%, which isn't displayed as answer, keeping the question impossible to answer if only allowed to chose the given answers. This means the odds are still 0% (impossible).

the answer to this problem is 100%

there is no defined answer so you can't be wrong

if you aren't wrong then you are right

{quoted}

None of the above? It's a 33% chance because there is in essence three answers.

...But then again, there are 4 buttons and two of them are the same, so if the doubled answer is correct, then it's a 50% chance. BUT if it's wrong, then It goes back to a 25% chance.

So 33% of the time we have a 50% chance, and then 66% of the time we have a 25% chance. Let's take these rules into a test of 100 trials, where 33/100 times we have a 50% chance and the other 67 there's a 25% chance of being correct.

33 x .5 = 16.5 67 x .25 = 16.75 16.5 + 16.75 = 33.25

So we take the 33.25 times we were correct over the 100 trials, and we get 33.25/100 which is basically 33% chance of being correct in a perfect math world.

This is all assuming one of the three options is correct while the others are wrong of course. The way I went about this might be completely wrong too, I'm no probability guru.

I don't think you can simply put both of the 25% answers together like that, say for example I had 99 trillion options that all have the answer 25% expcet for the 50% and 60%. In that scenario it is very easy to imagine that it is likely that the person will select 25% so when you think about it you cannot put the 2 25%'s into 1 25% because that would imply that the chance of choosing 25% is no more likely than the other 2 options when it actually is more likely.

I think the answer answer to the question is actually 0% because all the other options would result in a paradox

There is a fifty percent chance of me being Right or being wrong here. As there are four options, and thus I would have a 1 in 4, or 25% chance to be correct.

HOWEVER!

As two of the options are both 25%, this means that either one I picked would still yield a 25% chance of being correct, while allowing me to choose either one and to maintain the same odds. This means that these two options are in fact one in the same, and give me exactly 25% chance each, would instead yield a 50% chance of being correct, as they both would be either correct or incorrect at the same time.

Thus I in fact have 50% chance to be correct. And I can then choose option 2, which is the 50% option, as it will both cover it's own chances and also the chances of both of the 25% options as well.

Thus I have a 50% chance to be correct in my choice.